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Worldwide Education the same=Languages are all the same?





loveandormoney
Do all parents in the world educate in the same way?
Is this the reason all languages have the same structure?
badai
loveandormoney wrote:
Do all parents in the world educate in the same way?
Is this the reason all languages have the same structure?


nope, some are told god created them better than others, while others were told we are all equal.
nope, the way i see it, in 4 languages that i'm fluent of, they don't have the same structure, but they do borrowed few words from each other.

how small is your planet anyway?
loveandormoney
Quote:
some are told god created them better


So You did say: Chinese language is different vom from English, because Chinese people are not created from God?
Did You learn this in school.
I never was thinking about this problem.
zaxacongrejo
hell no thats a cultural thing,but models tend to be imitated copied from developed countrys
loveandormoney
Yes.
Roman language was copied to other languages in old Europe.
French and Italian languages have a lot of common words.
But
how about Indian languages?
jajarvin
loveandormoney wrote:
Do all parents in the world educate in the same way?
Is this the reason all languages have the same structure?


There are some differences between languages. Let us take for example the case of grammatical cases:

Wiki wrote:

In grammar, the case of a noun or pronoun is an inflectional form that indicates its grammatical function in a phrase, clause, or sentence.

For example, a pronoun may play the role of subject ("I kicked the ball"), of object ("John kicked me"), or of possessor ("That ball is mine").

Languages such as Ancient Greek, Latin, and Sanskrit had ways of altering or inflecting nouns to mark roles which are not specially marked in English, such as the ablative case ("John kicked the ball away from the house") and the instrumental case ("John kicked the ball with his foot").
In Ancient Greek those last three words would be rendered tōi podi (τῷ ποδί), with the noun pous (πούς, foot) changing to podi to reflect the fact that John is using his foot as an instrument (any adjective modifying "foot" would also change case to match).

Usually a language is said to "have cases" only if nouns change their form (decline) to reflect their case in this way. Other languages perform the same function in different ways. English, for example, uses prepositions such as "of" or "with" in front of a noun to indicate functions which in Ancient Greek or Latin would be indicated by changing (declining) the ending of the noun itself.
----
With a few exceptions, most languages in the Finno-Ugric group make extensive use of cases. Finnish has 15 cases according to the traditional understanding (or up to 30 depending on the interpretation).[13] However, only 12 are commonly used in speech (see Finnish noun cases). Estonian has 14 and Hungarian has 18.


For example, in the Finnish language the fifteen grammatical cases are:
nominative,
accusative,
genitive,
essive,
partitive,
translative,
inessiivi,
elatiivi,
illative,
adessive,
ablative,
allatiivi,
abessive,
the instructive case,
komitatiivi

It's no wonder that many of the students who are studying the Finnish language are of the opinion that the learning of Finnish language is quite difficult task to do.

More info abaout Finnish noun cases http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Finnish_noun_cases
bukaida
Usually the language in the same region shares lots of common word. There are some mother script for all popular languages. Like for European languages, it is usually roman script. For Indian language it is " Sanskrit" ( which has lot common with German, due to the common Ariyan base) . Sometimes the languages are influenced by foreign invaders. There is a full fledged subject called "LINGUISTICS" which deals with these interesting properties of languages and scripts.
Bikerman
Chomsky hypothesized that all languages can be described in terms of a universal 'grammar', though this is still controversial. The argument makes sense - babies learn whatever language they are exposed to, so it follows that there must be some structure in the brain which allows this. Clearly any such structure could not work if language was arbitrary, so, the theory goes, all language must share common features which enable a generalised 'circuit' in the brain to be able to learn them.
bukaida
Bikerman wrote:
Chomsky hypothesized that all languages can be described in terms of a universal 'grammar', though this is still controversial. The argument makes sense - babies learn whatever language they are exposed to, so it follows that there must be some structure in the brain which allows this. Clearly any such structure could not work if language was arbitrary, so, the theory goes, all language must share common features which enable a generalised 'circuit' in the brain to be able to learn them.

Absolutely.
Initially people used to communicate in sign languages which was almost universal and still very relevant ( specially if you are in a country/people who speaks none of your known language). The first words from a child are almost similar ( mamma, dada,babba) so many languages have the terms father and mother(since they are closest to the child) phonetically similar to mamma/dada/babba.

GOOD TO GET YOU BACK BIKERMAN.
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