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Does the observer effect disprove an omniscient being?

 


ocalhoun
So, some things in quantum physics are affected when observed, and cannot be observed without affecting them.
The act of looking at something can change what it is, make it choose one state or another to 'really' be in.

If there was an omniscient being in the universe though, wouldn't every single particle and sub-particle be observed at all times?

To sum it up:
-If there were an omniscient being in the universe, it would be impossible for anything to be in an indeterminate, un-observed, state.
-Sometimes things are, apparently, in indeterminate states.
-Therefore, there cannot be an omniscient being.

Don't know if anybody has tried looking at it from this angle before, but I'd be interested to hear what you think of it.
Bikerman
ocalhoun wrote:
So, some things in quantum physics are affected when observed, and cannot be observed without affecting them.
The act of looking at something can change what it is, make it choose one state or another to 'really' be in.
Hmm...the Copenhagen interpretation of quantum physics is getting a bit old now...
There are problems with this view - it is, after all, an interpretation, not a 'result'. Modern physics tends to put far more importance on decoherence and less on the 'observation'.
Voodoocat
Unfortunately Schrödinger stuffed the omnipotent being into a box and now we will never know the answer Shocked
Stubru Freak
Of course it doesn't. Nothing can disprove an omniscient, omnipotent being... It can just adjust all particles to act like they follow the laws of physics, while actually they don't.

That's the whole problem with discussing religion. Everything is possible, because god is omnipotent! You can explain anything that way.
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